Top 100 Nursing MCQs for Prometric Exam with Explanations

How to use this page: Answer each question first, then read the explanation. Write every wrong answer in a mistake notebook and revise the weak topic before moving to the next section.

Question 1

A nurse receives four patients. Which patient should be assessed first?

1. A. A patient with mild headache for two days
2. B. A patient with chest pain, sweating and shortness of breath
3. C. A patient requesting discharge papers
4. D. A patient with stable ankle pain

Answer: B

Explanation: Chest pain with sweating and breathlessness may indicate acute coronary syndrome. Assess immediately and escalate for ECG and emergency management.

Question 2

Which nursing action is the best example of patient safety before medication administration?

1. A. Checking only the room number
2. B. Asking the relative to identify the patient
3. C. Using two patient identifiers and checking allergy history
4. D. Giving the drug quickly to save time

Answer: C

Explanation: Two identifiers and allergy review reduce wrong-patient and adverse drug errors.

Question 3

A confused elderly patient is trying to climb out of bed. What is the priority nursing action?

1. A. Apply restraints immediately without assessment
2. B. Leave the patient and inform the next shift
3. C. Ensure safety, lower the bed and activate fall precautions
4. D. Give sedatives without prescription

Answer: C

Explanation: Fall prevention is urgent. Use bed-low position, call bell, supervision, non-slip footwear and facility fall protocol.

Question 4

Which patient should a nurse prioritize after receiving handover?

1. A. Post-op patient with fresh bleeding from dressing
2. B. Patient waiting for routine discharge teaching
3. C. Stable patient asking for water
4. D. Patient with mild constipation

Answer: A

Explanation: Fresh post-operative bleeding may indicate hemorrhage and requires immediate assessment.

Question 5

What is the first step when a patient is found unresponsive?

1. A. Give oral fluids
2. B. Check responsiveness and call for help
3. C. Start feeding
4. D. Leave to find the chart

Answer: B

Explanation: Assess responsiveness, call for help and follow basic life support steps.

Question 6

Which finding requires urgent reporting?

1. A. Temperature 37.2°C
2. B. Oxygen saturation 86% on room air
3. C. Pulse 78/min
4. D. Blood pressure 120/80 mmHg

Answer: B

Explanation: Oxygen saturation of 86% indicates hypoxemia and needs urgent assessment and intervention.

Question 7

A patient complains of sudden severe headache and neck stiffness. What should the nurse suspect?

1. A. Common cold
2. B. Migraine only
3. C. Possible meningitis or neurological emergency
4. D. Normal stress response

Answer: C

Explanation: Sudden severe headache with neck stiffness is a red flag and must be escalated promptly.

Question 8

Which action best prevents pressure injuries?

1. A. Repositioning immobile patients regularly
2. B. Keeping skin wet
3. C. Massaging reddened bony prominences
4. D. Avoiding nutrition assessment

Answer: A

Explanation: Regular repositioning, skin care, nutrition and pressure-relieving surfaces help prevent pressure injuries.

Question 9

A patient develops facial swelling and difficulty breathing after IV antibiotic. What is the priority?

1. A. Continue infusion slowly
2. B. Stop the medication and call for emergency help
3. C. Document later only
4. D. Offer oral water

Answer: B

Explanation: This suggests anaphylaxis. Stop the drug, call for help and follow emergency protocol.

Question 10

Which documentation practice is safest?

1. A. Charting before care is provided
2. B. Using vague notes
3. C. Recording accurate, timely and objective information
4. D. Deleting errors without correction policy

Answer: C

Explanation: Accurate, timely and objective documentation supports safe care and legal accountability.

Question 11

Which precaution is required for suspected pulmonary tuberculosis?

1. A. Contact precautions
2. B. Droplet precautions
3. C. Airborne precautions
4. D. No precautions

Answer: C

Explanation: TB spreads by airborne particles; airborne precautions and appropriate respiratory protection are required.

Question 12

Before and after patient contact, the most important infection-control action is:

1. A. Wearing perfume
2. B. Hand hygiene
3. C. Opening windows
4. D. Using the same gloves

Answer: B

Explanation: Hand hygiene is the most important routine infection prevention measure.

Question 13

Which PPE is essential when caring for a patient on contact precautions?

1. A. Gloves and gown
2. B. Only surgical mask
3. C. No PPE
4. D. Only shoe cover

Answer: A

Explanation: Contact precautions usually require gloves and gown when entering or providing care.

Question 14

A nurse removes gloves after wound care. What should be done next?

1. A. Answer phone immediately
2. B. Perform hand hygiene
3. C. Touch the medication trolley
4. D. Start another procedure

Answer: B

Explanation: Hand hygiene is required after glove removal because contamination can occur during removal.

Question 15

Which patient needs droplet precautions?

1. A. Patient with pulmonary TB
2. B. Patient with influenza-like illness
3. C. Patient with pressure ulcer only
4. D. Patient with diabetes

Answer: B

Explanation: Influenza spreads mainly through droplets; droplet precautions are used.

Question 16

What is the safest way to handle a used needle?

1. A. Recap using both hands
2. B. Place immediately in sharps container
3. C. Leave on bedside table
4. D. Break it before disposal

Answer: B

Explanation: Needles must be disposed of immediately in approved sharps containers to prevent needle-stick injury.

Question 17

Which statement about standard precautions is correct?

1. A. Used only for infected patients
2. B. Used for all patients
3. C. Used only in ICU
4. D. Used only when blood is visible

Answer: B

Explanation: Standard precautions apply to every patient because infection status may be unknown.

Question 18

A patient with watery diarrhea due to suspected C. difficile needs which key action?

1. A. Alcohol rub only and no gloves
2. B. Contact precautions and soap-water hand hygiene as per policy
3. C. No isolation
4. D. Airborne isolation only

Answer: B

Explanation: C. difficile requires contact precautions; soap and water are often preferred because spores are resistant.

Question 19

Which practice increases infection risk?

1. A. Changing gloves between patients
2. B. Cleaning equipment between patients
3. C. Using the same stethoscope without cleaning
4. D. Performing hand hygiene

Answer: C

Explanation: Shared equipment can spread organisms if not cleaned properly.

Question 20

For a sterile procedure, which action is correct?

1. A. Touching sterile field with bare hands
2. B. Keeping sterile items above waist level
3. C. Turning your back on the sterile field
4. D. Using wet sterile packs

Answer: B

Explanation: Sterile fields should remain visible, dry and above waist level.

Question 21

A medication order is 500 mg. Available strength is 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL are needed?

1. A. 5 mL
2. B. 10 mL
3. C. 15 mL
4. D. 20 mL

Answer: B

Explanation: 250 mg equals 5 mL, so 500 mg equals 10 mL.

Question 22

Which is one of the classic rights of medication administration?

1. A. Right wall color
2. B. Right diagnosis only
3. C. Right patient
4. D. Right meal

Answer: C

Explanation: The rights include right patient, medication, dose, route, time and documentation.

Question 23

A patient has a known penicillin allergy. What should the nurse do before giving amoxicillin?

1. A. Give it slowly
2. B. Hold medication and clarify the order
3. C. Give antihistamine first
4. D. Ignore allergy

Answer: B

Explanation: Amoxicillin is a penicillin-class drug. Allergy must be clarified before administration.

Question 24

Which route is fastest for emergency medication absorption?

1. A. IV
2. B. Oral
3. C. Topical
4. D. Rectal

Answer: A

Explanation: Intravenous administration provides rapid systemic effect.

Question 25

A patient receiving opioids becomes very drowsy with respiratory rate 8/min. What is the priority?

1. A. Let the patient sleep
2. B. Assess airway and notify provider urgently
3. C. Give another opioid
4. D. Offer food

Answer: B

Explanation: Respiratory depression is a serious opioid adverse effect requiring urgent assessment and intervention.

Question 26

Which insulin is commonly used for rapid correction or mealtime coverage?

1. A. Insulin lispro
2. B. NPH only
3. C. Glargine only
4. D. No insulin

Answer: A

Explanation: Rapid-acting insulin such as lispro is used for mealtime or correction dosing according to orders.

Question 27

If a medication looks different from usual, the nurse should:

1. A. Administer it anyway
2. B. Ask the patient to decide
3. C. Check the order, label and pharmacy clarification
4. D. Throw it away without documentation

Answer: C

Explanation: Any unexpected medication appearance requires verification before administration.

Question 28

A drug is ordered 1 g. Available tablets are 500 mg each. How many tablets are needed?

1. A. 1 tablet
2. B. 2 tablets
3. C. 3 tablets
4. D. 4 tablets

Answer: B

Explanation: 1 g equals 1000 mg; two 500 mg tablets are required.

Question 29

Which medication requires monitoring for bleeding?

1. A. Warfarin
2. B. Paracetamol
3. C. Vitamin C
4. D. Antacid

Answer: A

Explanation: Warfarin is an anticoagulant and increases bleeding risk.

Question 30

Before giving digoxin, the nurse should especially assess:

1. A. Hair color
2. B. Apical pulse
3. C. Shoe size
4. D. Meal preference

Answer: B

Explanation: Digoxin can affect heart rate. Apical pulse and toxicity signs should be assessed according to protocol.

Question 31

A patient with appendicitis most commonly presents with pain that localizes to:

1. A. Left upper quadrant
2. B. Right lower quadrant
3. C. Right shoulder only
4. D. Left calf

Answer: B

Explanation: Appendicitis classically causes right lower quadrant pain, often at McBurney’s point.

Question 32

A post-operative patient has absent bowel sounds and abdominal distension. What should the nurse do?

1. A. Encourage heavy meal
2. B. Assess further and report possible ileus
3. C. Ignore as normal always
4. D. Give laxative without order

Answer: B

Explanation: Absent bowel sounds with distension may indicate ileus and should be assessed and reported.

Question 33

Which sign may indicate deep vein thrombosis?

1. A. Sudden hair loss
2. B. Unilateral calf swelling and pain
3. C. Clear urine
4. D. Improved appetite

Answer: B

Explanation: Unilateral calf pain, swelling and warmth can suggest DVT.

Question 34

A patient with liver disease is at risk for which problem?

1. A. Bleeding tendency
2. B. High calcium always
3. C. Increased clotting only
4. D. No medication issues

Answer: A

Explanation: Liver dysfunction can impair clotting factor production and increase bleeding risk.

Question 35

Which diet is commonly recommended for hypertension?

1. A. Very high sodium
2. B. Low sodium/DASH-style diet
3. C. Only fried foods
4. D. No fruits

Answer: B

Explanation: Reducing sodium and following a heart-healthy diet helps manage hypertension.

Question 36

A patient with peptic ulcer disease should avoid:

1. A. NSAID misuse
2. B. Small meals
3. C. Follow-up care
4. D. Reporting bleeding

Answer: A

Explanation: NSAIDs can worsen ulcers and increase bleeding risk.

Question 37

What is a key nursing concern after thyroidectomy?

1. A. Airway obstruction
2. B. Improved nail growth
3. C. Mild hunger
4. D. Dry socks

Answer: A

Explanation: Neck swelling or laryngeal edema can threaten the airway after thyroid surgery.

Question 38

A patient with anemia commonly reports:

1. A. Fatigue and pallor
2. B. Sudden euphoria
3. C. Excessive strength
4. D. Blue urine

Answer: A

Explanation: Anemia reduces oxygen-carrying capacity and may cause fatigue, pallor and shortness of breath.

Question 39

Which symptom is concerning for GI bleeding?

1. A. Black tarry stool
2. B. Clear sputum
3. C. Normal appetite
4. D. Dry skin only

Answer: A

Explanation: Melena suggests upper gastrointestinal bleeding.

Question 40

After surgery, early ambulation helps prevent:

1. A. Atelectasis and DVT
2. B. All allergies
3. C. All pain
4. D. Bone growth

Answer: A

Explanation: Early mobilization supports lung expansion and reduces thromboembolic risk.

Question 41

A patient with acute myocardial infarction usually needs first:

1. A. Routine appointment
2. B. Immediate assessment and ECG
3. C. Cold compress only
4. D. Delay until family arrives

Answer: B

Explanation: Suspected MI requires urgent assessment, ECG and rapid escalation.

Question 42

Which symptom is typical of left-sided heart failure?

1. A. Pulmonary congestion and dyspnea
2. B. Only ankle fracture
3. C. Improved breathing lying flat
4. D. No fatigue

Answer: A

Explanation: Left-sided failure commonly causes pulmonary congestion, dyspnea and orthopnea.

Question 43

A patient with COPD should be encouraged to use:

1. A. Pursed-lip breathing
2. B. Breath holding during activity
3. C. No inhalers ever
4. D. Rapid shallow breathing only

Answer: A

Explanation: Pursed-lip breathing can improve ventilation and reduce air trapping.

Question 44

Which finding suggests respiratory distress?

1. A. Use of accessory muscles
2. B. Relaxed breathing
3. C. Normal speech
4. D. Pink warm skin only

Answer: A

Explanation: Accessory muscle use indicates increased work of breathing.

Question 45

The priority in acute asthma with oxygen saturation 88% is:

1. A. Oxygen and bronchodilator as ordered
2. B. Discharge home
3. C. Stop all inhalers
4. D. Oral water only

Answer: A

Explanation: Severe asthma needs oxygen, bronchodilator therapy and close monitoring.

Question 46

Which ECG change may be dangerous?

1. A. Ventricular tachycardia
2. B. Normal sinus rhythm
3. C. Stable baseline
4. D. Regular pulse only

Answer: A

Explanation: Ventricular tachycardia can reduce cardiac output and may be life-threatening.

Question 47

A patient on diuretics is at risk for:

1. A. Electrolyte imbalance
2. B. Improved vision always
3. C. No urine output always
4. D. Increased hair growth

Answer: A

Explanation: Diuretics can alter potassium, sodium and fluid balance.

Question 48

Which position helps a patient with severe dyspnea?

1. A. High Fowler’s position
2. B. Flat supine without pillow
3. C. Trendelenburg always
4. D. Prone with face down

Answer: A

Explanation: High Fowler’s promotes lung expansion and eases breathing.

Question 49

A patient with pneumonia should be monitored for:

1. A. Worsening oxygen saturation
2. B. Improved shoe size
3. C. Hair color changes
4. D. Excessive appetite only

Answer: A

Explanation: Pneumonia can impair oxygenation; monitor saturation, respiratory rate and fever.

Question 50

Which medication class is often used for angina relief?

1. A. Nitrates
2. B. Antacids only
3. C. Antihistamines only
4. D. Laxatives

Answer: A

Explanation: Nitrates can relieve angina by reducing cardiac workload and dilating vessels.

Question 51

A diabetic patient is sweaty, confused and shaky with glucose 48 mg/dL. What is the priority if conscious?

1. A. Give oral glucose
2. B. Give insulin
3. C. Restrict all fluids
4. D. Wait one hour

Answer: A

Explanation: This is hypoglycemia. Give oral glucose if the patient can swallow safely.

Question 52

Signs of hyperglycemia may include:

1. A. Polyuria, polydipsia and fatigue
2. B. Sweating and tremors only
3. C. Pinpoint pupils
4. D. Sudden low glucose

Answer: A

Explanation: High glucose commonly causes thirst, frequent urination and fatigue.

Question 53

Which lab value requires urgent attention?

1. A. Potassium 6.5 mmol/L
2. B. Sodium 140 mmol/L
3. C. Temperature 37°C
4. D. Pulse 78/min

Answer: A

Explanation: Severe hyperkalemia can cause life-threatening arrhythmias.

Question 54

A patient with kidney failure should be monitored for:

1. A. Fluid overload and electrolyte imbalance
2. B. Only improved appetite
3. C. No medication concerns
4. D. Low risk of anemia always

Answer: A

Explanation: Renal failure affects fluid, electrolytes, acid-base balance and drug clearance.

Question 55

Which IV fluid is isotonic?

1. A. 0.9% normal saline
2. B. Sterile water IV
3. C. 3% saline only
4. D. Dextrose powder

Answer: A

Explanation: Normal saline is isotonic and commonly used for volume replacement.

Question 56

Which symptom suggests dehydration in a child?

1. A. Sunken eyes and dry mucous membranes
2. B. Moist lips and playful behavior
3. C. Excess tears
4. D. Normal capillary refill only

Answer: A

Explanation: Sunken eyes, dry mucosa, lethargy and poor skin turgor suggest dehydration.

Question 57

For a patient on fluid restriction, the nurse should:

1. A. Measure intake and output accurately
2. B. Offer unlimited drinks
3. C. Ignore IV fluids
4. D. Document only at discharge

Answer: A

Explanation: Accurate intake and output helps monitor fluid balance.

Question 58

A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis is most likely to have:

1. A. Hyperglycemia, dehydration and ketones
2. B. Low glucose only
3. C. No acid-base disturbance
4. D. Normal breathing always

Answer: A

Explanation: DKA involves hyperglycemia, ketones, dehydration and metabolic acidosis.

Question 59

Which sign may indicate fluid overload?

1. A. Crackles and edema
2. B. Dry mucous membranes only
3. C. Sunken eyes
4. D. Poor skin turgor only

Answer: A

Explanation: Fluid overload may cause lung crackles, edema, weight gain and hypertension.

Question 60

Before giving potassium supplement, the nurse should check:

1. A. Serum potassium and renal function
2. B. Hair length
3. C. Room temperature only
4. D. Shoe size

Answer: A

Explanation: Potassium administration requires electrolyte and renal function monitoring.

Question 61

A pregnant woman has BP 170/110, headache and visual disturbance. The likely diagnosis is:

1. A. Severe preeclampsia
2. B. Normal pregnancy discomfort
3. C. Common cold
4. D. Mild anemia only

Answer: A

Explanation: Severe hypertension with headache and visual symptoms suggests severe preeclampsia.

Question 62

Postpartum hemorrhage is most commonly associated with:

1. A. Uterine atony
2. B. Improved uterine tone
3. C. Normal small lochia
4. D. Stable pulse only

Answer: A

Explanation: Uterine atony is a leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage.

Question 63

A newborn’s Apgar score is assessed at:

1. A. 1 and 5 minutes
2. B. Only 24 hours
3. C. One month
4. D. Before birth only

Answer: A

Explanation: Apgar scoring is commonly done at 1 and 5 minutes after birth.

Question 64

Which sign in pregnancy needs urgent attention?

1. A. Vaginal bleeding
2. B. Mild nausea only
3. C. Increased appetite
4. D. Mild breast tenderness

Answer: A

Explanation: Pregnancy bleeding can indicate serious complications and requires urgent evaluation.

Question 65

A newborn should be kept warm primarily to prevent:

1. A. Hypothermia
2. B. Excess speech
3. C. Hyperactivity
4. D. Eye color change

Answer: A

Explanation: Newborns lose heat easily; warmth prevents hypothermia and metabolic stress.

Question 66

Which teaching is important for breastfeeding?

1. A. Proper latch and feeding cues
2. B. Always avoid colostrum
3. C. Feed only once daily
4. D. Stop if baby cries

Answer: A

Explanation: Proper latch and recognition of feeding cues support effective breastfeeding.

Question 67

A mother with Rh-negative blood may need anti-D immunoglobulin when indicated to prevent:

1. A. Rh isoimmunization
2. B. Diabetes
3. C. Asthma
4. D. Hypertension

Answer: A

Explanation: Anti-D helps prevent maternal sensitization to Rh-positive fetal cells.

Question 68

Which postpartum finding should be reported?

1. A. Foul-smelling lochia with fever
2. B. Mild cramping during breastfeeding
3. C. Normal lochia changes
4. D. Mild fatigue

Answer: A

Explanation: Foul-smelling lochia with fever suggests infection.

Question 69

Fetal heart rate monitoring is used to assess:

1. A. Fetal wellbeing
2. B. Maternal shoe size
3. C. Infant future height
4. D. Maternal blood group only

Answer: A

Explanation: Fetal heart rate patterns help assess fetal status during labor.

Question 70

Which condition is a medical emergency in pregnancy?

1. A. Ectopic pregnancy rupture
2. B. Mild morning sickness
3. C. Normal breast tenderness
4. D. Occasional fatigue

Answer: A

Explanation: Ruptured ectopic pregnancy can cause life-threatening hemorrhage.

Question 71

A child with fever, stiff neck and photophobia should be assessed for:

1. A. Meningitis
2. B. Simple hunger
3. C. Dental caries only
4. D. Normal growth

Answer: A

Explanation: Fever with neck stiffness and photophobia suggests possible meningitis.

Question 72

Which vaccine-related advice is correct?

1. A. Follow the recommended immunization schedule
2. B. Avoid all vaccines permanently
3. C. Give extra doses without schedule
4. D. Vaccines are only for adults

Answer: A

Explanation: Immunization schedules protect children from preventable diseases.

Question 73

A child with severe dehydration needs priority assessment of:

1. A. Circulation and hydration status
2. B. Hair style
3. C. School grade only
4. D. Favorite toy

Answer: A

Explanation: Severe dehydration can compromise circulation and requires urgent assessment.

Question 74

Which sign in an infant is concerning?

1. A. Poor feeding and lethargy
2. B. Strong cry and feeding well
3. C. Normal wet diapers
4. D. Alert behavior

Answer: A

Explanation: Poor feeding and lethargy are red flags in infants.

Question 75

Medication dosing in children is often based on:

1. A. Weight
2. B. Favorite food
3. C. Parent height only
4. D. Shoe color

Answer: A

Explanation: Pediatric dosing is commonly weight-based to improve safety.

Question 76

A child with asthma should have teaching about:

1. A. Correct inhaler technique
2. B. Stopping inhalers without advice
3. C. Avoiding all activity forever
4. D. Using antibiotics for every wheeze

Answer: A

Explanation: Correct inhaler technique improves medication delivery and symptom control.

Question 77

Which symptom may indicate respiratory distress in a child?

1. A. Nasal flaring and retractions
2. B. Sleeping comfortably
3. C. Normal color
4. D. Playing actively

Answer: A

Explanation: Nasal flaring and retractions show increased work of breathing.

Question 78

Oral rehydration solution is commonly used for:

1. A. Mild to moderate dehydration from diarrhea
2. B. Broken bone only
3. C. Asthma attack only
4. D. Ear wax

Answer: A

Explanation: ORS helps replace fluids and electrolytes in mild to moderate diarrheal dehydration.

Question 79

A child with suspected abuse should be managed by:

1. A. Following safeguarding policy and reporting pathways
2. B. Ignoring bruises
3. C. Asking child to hide injuries
4. D. Discharging without assessment

Answer: A

Explanation: Safeguarding concerns must follow institutional and legal reporting policy.

Question 80

Which assessment is important in pediatric pain?

1. A. Age-appropriate pain scale
2. B. Adult-only pain tool always
3. C. Ignore because children exaggerate
4. D. Only parent’s mood

Answer: A

Explanation: Pain should be assessed using age and developmental-level appropriate tools.

Question 81

A patient expresses suicidal thoughts. What is the priority?

1. A. Leave patient alone
2. B. Ensure safety and notify the mental health team urgently
3. C. Tell them to stop talking
4. D. Ignore if calm

Answer: B

Explanation: Suicidal ideation requires immediate safety assessment, supervision and escalation.

Question 82

Which response shows therapeutic communication?

1. A. Tell me more about how you are feeling.
2. B. Do not worry, everything is fine.
3. C. Your problem is not serious.
4. D. I know exactly how you feel.

Answer: A

Explanation: Open-ended questions encourage expression and assessment.

Question 83

A patient refuses a procedure. The nurse should first:

1. A. Force the procedure
2. B. Assess understanding and inform the provider
3. C. Hide information
4. D. Ask family to sign without consent

Answer: B

Explanation: Patients have autonomy. Assess understanding and follow consent policy.

Question 84

Confidential patient information should be shared:

1. A. Only with authorized persons involved in care
2. B. With friends if they ask
3. C. On social media without name
4. D. With any visitor

Answer: A

Explanation: Confidentiality protects patient privacy and trust.

Question 85

A patient is anxious before surgery. Best nursing response is:

1. A. Provide clear information and allow questions
2. B. Tell patient to be quiet
3. C. Ignore anxiety
4. D. Cancel surgery without order

Answer: A

Explanation: Education and emotional support reduce anxiety and improve cooperation.

Question 86

Which is an example of nonmaleficence?

1. A. Avoiding harm to the patient
2. B. Ignoring pain
3. C. Withholding all information
4. D. Disclosing secrets

Answer: A

Explanation: Nonmaleficence means avoiding harm.

Question 87

A nurse makes a medication error. What is the best action?

1. A. Hide the error
2. B. Report immediately and monitor the patient
3. C. Change the chart secretly
4. D. Blame the patient

Answer: B

Explanation: Medication errors must be reported promptly to protect the patient and enable corrective action.

Question 88

A hallucinating patient says voices are threatening them. What should the nurse do?

1. A. Argue that voices are not real
2. B. Assess safety and respond calmly
3. C. Laugh at the patient
4. D. Leave immediately

Answer: B

Explanation: Safety assessment and calm supportive communication are priorities.

Question 89

Which statement shows respect for patient dignity?

1. A. Explaining care before touching the patient
2. B. Exposing patient unnecessarily
3. C. Talking over the patient
4. D. Ignoring preferences

Answer: A

Explanation: Explaining care and maintaining privacy supports dignity.

Question 90

Informed consent means the patient:

1. A. Understands risks, benefits and alternatives before agreeing
2. B. Signs without explanation
3. C. Allows family to decide always
4. D. Cannot refuse

Answer: A

Explanation: Valid consent requires information, capacity, voluntariness and understanding.

Question 91

In cardiac arrest, the nurse should first:

1. A. Start CPR and call for help according to protocol
2. B. Give oral fluids
3. C. Find family history first
4. D. Wait for rounds

Answer: A

Explanation: Cardiac arrest requires immediate CPR and activation of emergency response.

Question 92

A patient with anaphylaxis needs which priority medication as ordered?

1. A. Epinephrine
2. B. Iron tablet
3. C. Vitamin C
4. D. Laxative

Answer: A

Explanation: Epinephrine is the first-line medication for anaphylaxis.

Question 93

Signs of septic shock may include:

1. A. Hypotension, fever and altered mental status
2. B. Only mild hunger
3. C. Normal vitals always
4. D. Improved energy

Answer: A

Explanation: Septic shock causes infection signs with circulatory failure and organ dysfunction.

Question 94

A stroke is suspected when a patient has sudden facial droop and arm weakness. What is the priority?

1. A. Activate stroke protocol
2. B. Give food immediately
3. C. Wait overnight
4. D. Encourage walking alone

Answer: A

Explanation: Stroke requires rapid assessment and protocol activation because time affects outcome.

Question 95

A patient has severe bleeding from a wound. What is the first nursing action?

1. A. Apply direct pressure
2. B. Leave wound open
3. C. Give water first
4. D. Wait for lab results

Answer: A

Explanation: Direct pressure helps control external bleeding while help is summoned.

Question 96

Which oxygen delivery device can provide high oxygen concentration in emergencies?

1. A. Non-rebreather mask
2. B. Nasal cannula only at low flow
3. C. Room air only
4. D. No device

Answer: A

Explanation: A non-rebreather mask can deliver high oxygen concentration when used correctly.

Question 97

A patient with hypovolemic shock is likely to have:

1. A. Tachycardia, hypotension and cool clammy skin
2. B. Slow pulse and high BP always
3. C. Warm dry skin always
4. D. Normal mental status always

Answer: A

Explanation: Hypovolemia reduces circulating volume, causing compensatory tachycardia and poor perfusion.

Question 98

During a seizure, the nurse should:

1. A. Protect from injury and maintain airway safety
2. B. Put objects in the mouth
3. C. Restrain forcefully
4. D. Leave the room

Answer: A

Explanation: Seizure care focuses on safety, airway protection and timing the event; do not place objects in the mouth.

Question 99

A burn patient’s immediate concern is:

1. A. Airway, breathing and circulation
2. B. Cosmetic appearance only
3. C. Discharge teaching first
4. D. Routine dental check

Answer: A

Explanation: Burn assessment starts with ABC, especially inhalation injury and shock risk.

Question 100

Which finding suggests increased intracranial pressure?

1. A. Decreased level of consciousness
2. B. Improved appetite only
3. C. Dry skin only
4. D. Normal speech always

Answer: A

Explanation: Reduced consciousness is a warning sign of neurological deterioration.